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Whos right?

Posted by: Dave
26/01/10 at 6:06 pm

After two years of seperation my wife has told me that she has spoken to a solicitor and because she has paid the mortgage I have nothing due to me after six years of marrage.
This is true but she still recieved money for food gas electric ect...

we have a son of 13 years old who I pay maintanance for. live in a rented house
I believe that this maybe a ruse because she is running into heavy debt and needs to re-mortgage to clear the bills

House and assets come to around £230000
My problem is I dont want to make her go under and what would be the minimum I should be entitled to?

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There are currently 2 replies.

Re: Whos right?

Posted by: goingthrudivorce
26/02/10 at 8:46 pm

Dave
Just because your wife has been paying the mortgage it doesn't mean you won't get a share of the house.

I'm no expert but I'm currently going through a divorce and have taken advice from solicitors. I can tell you that I have paid the mortgage for over 10 years, yet my wife is probably going to receive more than 50% of our assets (including the house), mainly because the children will be living with her in future.

At the very least I suggest you get advice from some of the websites out there, do a search on google for divorce advice.

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Re: Whos right?

Posted by: namrata
22/03/10 at 5:41 am


HI,

There are several conditions in the laws and if your wife is paying the mortgage then certainly you have also the share in that house.

For that you need to consult with a good layer.

Thanks
 

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